Cidcruz
Cidcruz
01-03-2021
Mathematics
contestada
helppppp rn please.
Respuesta :
klove5
klove5
01-03-2021
1) neither. that’s not one of your answer choices so just pick one (maybe odd ♀️)
2) 2 is the answer. Plug in 1 for x, raise everything to its power (which will end up being 1), then use PEMDAS to solve
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[tex] \rm \int_{0}^ \infty \frac{ \sqrt[ \scriptsize\phi]{x} \tan^{- 1} (x)}{(1 + {x}^{ \phi} {)}^{2} } {}^{} {} \: dx\\ [/tex]
